Just a saber query: shouldn't you be using FIP instead of xFIP? xFIP is the windshield of the car as we gaze at the future, i.e. the 2012 season, while FIP is our rear view window looking at what actually happened in 2011. We're deciding about what actually happened in 2011, not what should happen in 2012.
Yes,
I probably should be using FIP and not xFIP in cases like these. However, it's
important to note that while FIP might be somewhat more descriptive of what
happened in the past, it is also generally regarded as a predictive metric as
well.
Fangraphs and others have already done a great
job with the definitions of both metrics, so I'm not going to rehash that here.
To
jem's point, though, FIP and xFIP are extremely similar for most pitchers.
ERA, FIP, and xFIP Differentials: MLB
Pitchers with 100+ IP, 2011
DIFF | ERA/FIP | ERA/xFIP | FIP/xFIP |
0 to 0.3 | 56 | 48 | 90 |
0.31 to 0.6 | 47 | 43 | 42 |
0.61 to 0.9 | 25 | 27 | 10 |
0.91 to 1.2 | 10 | 14 | 2 |
1.21 or higher | 7 | 13 | 1 |
That
0.3 differential isn't arbitrary. To create a “perfect” corollary between ERA
and FIP, you would also create a hypothetical number of earned runs that a
pitcher allowed. The number of pitchers in the 0.3 differential is nearly
identical to the number of pitchers whose real ER versus their hypothetical ER
are five or less. When analyzing a pitcher, 0-5 earned runs isn't a
significant number in the overall analysis.
So
while I should have used FIP, the difference between the two metrics isn't as
significant as the difference between either ERA and FIP or ERA and xFIP. For
pitchers who give up a significantly high number of ground balls or fly balls
AND either give up a lot of home runs or very few home runs the difference in xFIP
and FIP can certainly loom large. But as the chart above shows, pitchers with a
large FIP/xFIP differential are the exception and not the rule.
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